Question

I knew him that he is an honest man--make simple with infinitive​

Answer 1

Answer:

know that he is an honest man.

I want to know about these two possible reformulated versions of that sentence that replace the original’s bolded that... part with a non-finite verb of the “right” form:

I know him to be honest.

I know him being honest.

Does it make any difference whether we use an infinitive or a gerund here following know? I know English grammar has no general rule saying whether any given verb must be followed only by infinitives or only by gerunds, or whether both are acceptable. We non-native speakers know that we have to learn how certain verbs must be followed by gerunds and others by infinitives on a case-by-case basis. So I’m trying to learn which case this one is. If both versions sound acceptable to native speakers, do they mean the same thing or different things?

How would you analyse both of those grammatically? Is the bolded non-finite-verb phrase there an object of the main verb know or only a modifier? If it’s an object, what kind of object is it? If it’s a modifier, what does it modify?

Explanation:

please mark me as brainliest