Economy, asked by anshadarsh254, 1 year ago

If a consumer has monotonic preferences she/he can be indifferent between the bundles (10,8) and (8,6) ? Why/ Why not ?

Answers

Answered by adityaasdf
4

Explanation:

No, he/she cannot be indifferent towards these two bundles as bundle 1 consists of more of both goods as compared to bundle 2. He/she will prefer bundle 1 over bundle 2 as it contains 10 units of good 1 and 8 units of good 2 as compared to 8 units and 6 units of good 1 and good 2 respectively in bundle 2

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