Math, asked by tyles, 1 year ago

if a property hold for integer it will also hold for rational numbers. ( true or false)

Answers

Answered by TheAbhishekVerma
0
False.
Hope it helps. Rate this answer please

tyles: are you sure that this ans is true
TheAbhishekVerma: Then it's False. Lol!
Answered by santhisiva2037
0

Answer:

It is FALSE.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the properties of rational number includes division which is not suitable with 0 as it is an integer.

Similar questions