Math, asked by PaaishaTamanna, 9 months ago

if a property holds for rational numbers,it must hold for natural numbers and integers.
TRUE OR FALSE AND TELL WHY ACCORDING TO UR ANSWER

Answers

Answered by MasterOfSolutions
4

Answer:

Please see the explanation below-

Step-by-step explanation:

The given statement is false as not all the properties of rational numbers do not hold good for natural numbers and integers.

Eg. The set of rational numbers contains the digit 0 but the set of natural numbers doesn't. Hope it helps!

Answered by Anonymous
11

IT IS TRUE ....................

MARK AS BRAINLIAST ANSWER

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