If amn =(a)mn then the value of m is
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The answer would be 0
This is given a^m.a^n = a^mn.
If we use the power rule here we will get this:
a^m.a^n=a^(m+n).
∴ m + n = mn → (1)
Consider, m(n – 2) + n(m – 2)m = mn – 2m + mn – 2n
= 2mn – 2(m + n)
= 2mn – 2mn
= 0
If there is any confusion please leave a comment below.
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