Math, asked by yuvi2167, 1 year ago

If amn =(a)mn then the value of m is

Answers

Answered by Shaizakincsem
1

Thank you for asking this question. Here is your answer.

The answer would be 0

This is given  a^m.a^n = a^mn.

If we use the power rule here we will get this:

a^m.a^n=a^(m+n).

∴ m + n = mn → (1)

Consider, m(n – 2) + n(m – 2)m = mn – 2m + mn – 2n

= 2mn – 2(m + n)

= 2mn – 2mn  

= 0

If there is any confusion please leave a comment below.

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