Math, asked by bollepallysrikar, 7 months ago

If cos(p-q)/cos(p+q)=-cos(r+s)/cos(r-s) then prove that tan(p)×tan(q)-tan(r)×tan(s)=0​

Answers

Answered by sarfrazqasim9
0

cos(p-q)/cos(p+q)=-cos(r+s)/cos(r-s) then prove that tan(p)×tan(q)-tan(r)×tan(s)=0

Similar questions