If f(x) = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) for x ∈ [0, 4], then the value of c ∈ (0, 4) satisfying Lagrange’s mean value theorem, is
Answers
Answered by
6
ʜᴇʀᴇ's ʏᴏᴜʀ ᴀɴsᴡᴇʀ ɪɴ ᴛʜᴇ ɢɪᴠᴇɴ ᴀᴛᴛᴀᴄʜᴍᴇɴᴛ
hope you'll get it ✌️✌️
Attachments:


Similar questions