Math, asked by HeetD, 9 months ago

if m times the mth term of an AP is equal to it's n times nty term, then show that the (m+n)th term of the AP is 0​

Answers

Answered by Magicianofmaths25
0

Step-by-step explanation:

m(a+(m-1)d)=n(a+(n-1)d)

am+m^2d-md=an+n^2d-nd

am-an=d(n^2-n-m^2+m)

a=(d((n^2-n-m^2+m)) /(m-n)

a= - (n+m)d+d

put the value of a in the equation

=a+(m+n-1)d

You will get 0

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