Math, asked by shashikapoor639399, 1 year ago

if P(A)=1/2,P(B)=0,thenP(A/B) is​

Answers

Answered by ashutosharyan874
0

This is not possible,, your qn is wrong

Because sum of all the probabilities is always 1 but here it is (1/2)


shashikapoor639399: this is ryt qn
ashutosharyan874: can u attach the pic of qn,,, i can't believe that this qn is right
Answered by pinquancaro
3

P(A/B) is not defined.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : If P(A)=\frac{1}{2} ,P(B)=0.

To find : The value of P(A/B) ?

Solution :

We have given,

P(B)=0

i.e. B=\phi a empty set

So, A\cap B=\phi

The probability of intersection is P(A\cap B)=0

Now we know that,

P(A/B)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}

P(A/B)=\frac{0}{0}

Therefore, P(A/B) is not defined.

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