Math, asked by nabihafatima8703, 2 months ago

If P(x) = x² = √2x+1 then p(√z) is equal to​

Answers

Answered by elenstudent365
1

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

p(x)=x²-2√2x+1.

p(2√2)=(2√2)²-(2√2*2√2)+1

p(2√2)=(2√2)²- (2√2)²+1

=0+1.

=1.

Let us also try another method you so can be more sure

p ( x ) = x² - 2√2x + 1

p ( 2√2 ) = ( 2√2 )² - ( 2√2 × 2√2 ) + 1

p ( 2√2 ) = ( 8 )  - ( 8 ) + 1  

p ( 2√2 ) = 1

HOPE IT HELPS YOU!!!

Answered by Anonymous
45

p ( x ) = x² - 2√2x + 1

p ( 2√2 ) = ( 2√2 )² - ( 2√2 × 2√2 ) + 1

p ( 2√2 ) = ( 8 )  - ( 8 ) + 1  

p ( 2√2 ) = 1

hope it helps :)

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