Math, asked by Elesa8369, 1 year ago

If sin^–1 (1– x ) – 2 sin^–1( x) = π/2 then x equals (a) 0, -1/2 (b) 0,1/2 (c) 0 (d) None of these

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Answered by vikashbhamu
1
i hope it will help you in solving your question
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