if the product of two whole numbers is 1 can we say that one or both of them will be 1. Justify your answer please answer fast
Answers
Answered by
0
Both of them will be 1 as 1*1=1 only try others like 1*2,1*3,1*4,2*4,3*1*32*58etc
Answered by
5
Yes it is true we can get the product as 1 only when both the numbers are 1
1×1=1
1×2=2
1×3=3
1×4=4
so after we multiply the number with any other number se don't get 1 as the product that is why both the number should be 1
HOPE it helps to you!!!!
1×1=1
1×2=2
1×3=3
1×4=4
so after we multiply the number with any other number se don't get 1 as the product that is why both the number should be 1
HOPE it helps to you!!!!
abhya2:
in gurgaon
Similar questions
Math,
7 months ago
Computer Science,
7 months ago
Social Sciences,
7 months ago
English,
1 year ago
Science,
1 year ago
Math,
1 year ago