Physics, asked by hardikha11, 23 hours ago

If x denotes the displacement of an object in time ts and x = acos(πt) m, then acceleration of the object will be zero at​

Answers

Answered by akshisaro
3

Answer:

Acceleration

(a)= dt^2/d^2

= dt^2/d^2(a cost)

= −a dt/d(sin t)

=−a cost

Explanation:

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Answered by pulakmath007
10

SOLUTION

GIVEN

x denotes the displacement of an object in time t s and x = a cos (πt) m

TO DETERMINE

The acceleration of the object will be zero at

EVALUATION

Here it is given that x denotes the displacement of an object in time t s

\displaystyle \sf{ x = a \:   \cos (\pi t)}

Differentiating both sides with respect to t we get

\displaystyle \sf{ Velocity = v =   \frac{dx}{dt} =  - a \pi\:   \sin (\pi t)}

Again Differentiating both sides with respect to t we get

\displaystyle \sf{ Acceleration = f =   \frac{dv}{dt} =  - a  {\pi}^{2}    \cos (\pi t)}

Now acceleration = 0

\displaystyle \sf{ \implies   \frac{dv}{dt} = 0}

\displaystyle \sf{ \implies    - a  {\pi}^{2}    \cos (\pi t)} = 0

\displaystyle \sf{ \implies   \cos (\pi t)} = 0

\displaystyle \sf{ \implies \pi t = (2n + 1) \frac{\pi}{2} }

\displaystyle \sf{ \implies t =  \frac{2n + 1}{2}  }

\displaystyle \sf{ \implies t = n +  \frac{1}{2}  }

Where n is a whole number

FINAL ANSWER

Acceleration will be zero when

\displaystyle \sf{  t = n +  \frac{1}{2}  }

Where n is a whole number

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