Math, asked by PatriciaBCox2581, 1 year ago

If x +z =2y, b^2 =ac then prove that (a) ^(y-z) * (b) ^(z-x) *(c) ^(x-y) =1

Answers

Answered by saprakiran70
4

I don't understand the question because you have put so many signs. Please click the photo of this question then I suppose to answer you.

Answered by tanmoymallik1994
1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Similar questions