If x +z =2y, b^2 =ac then prove that (a) ^(y-z) * (b) ^(z-x) *(c) ^(x-y) =1
Answers
Answered by
4
I don't understand the question because you have put so many signs. Please click the photo of this question then I suppose to answer you.
Answered by
1
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Similar questions