if xyz=1 then find the value of x, y, z (without hit and trial method)
Answers
Answered by
0
Its answer is 1.
Because by multiplying 1×1×1=1 as xyz
Because by multiplying 1×1×1=1 as xyz
sheetal3718:
sorry by mistake repeatedly send ho gaya
pls don't argue falsely if u don't know the answer
then tell what's the answer of this question
i don't know
u girl?
or boy
If you don't know the answer then how can you say the concept is wrong
leave it are you in fb?
No. I am not using fb yet
are u girl?
Similar questions