Math, asked by Sanaullah9236, 9 months ago

Ifcosecx-sinx=a3 ,secx-cosx=b3 prove that a2b2(a2+b2)=1

Answers

Answered by Rishail
7

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider cosec theta - sin theta = a³

⇒ !/sin theta - sin theta = a³

⇒ 1 - sin² theta/sin theta = a³

cos² theta/ sin theta = a³ → (1)

⇒ (cos² theta/sin theta)²/³ = (a³)²/³

⇒ cos⁴/³ theta/sin²/³ theta = a² → (2)

Now consider, sec theta - cos theta = b³

⇒ 1/cos theta - cos theta = b³

⇒ 1 - cos²theta/cos theta = b³

⇒ sin² theta/cos theta = b³ → (3)

⇒ (sin² theta/cos theta)²/³ = (b³)²/³

⇒ sin⁴/³ theta/cos²/³ theta = b² → (4)

Multiply (2) and (4), we get

(cos⁴/³ theta/sin²/³ theta)× (sin⁴/³ theta/cos²/³ theta) = a²b² → (5)

a² + b² =(cos⁴/³ theta/sin²/³ theta) + (sin⁴/³ theta/cos²/³ theta)

(cos² theta + sin² theta)/(sin²/³ theta cos²/³ theta)

= 1/sin²/³ theta cos²/³ theta

Consider, a²b²(a²+b²) = (sin²/³ theta cos²/³ theta) × 1/sin²/³ theta cos²/³ theta

= 1 Hence proved.

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Answered by ratankumar1234321
1

I have given the answer

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