Math, asked by arpankhanra535, 1 day ago

(ii) If f(x)=(ax-b/bx-a) show that f(a) f(1/a) - f(b) f(1/b)=0

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Answered by agnesbobby36
1

Answer:

y = f (x) = (ax – b) / (bx – a) ⇒ f (y) = (ay – b) / (by – a) Let us prove that the x = f (y). Now, we have, y = (ax – b) / (bx – a) On cross-multiplying, y(bx – a) = ax – b bxy – ay = ax – b bxy – ax = ay – b x(by – a) = ay – b x = (ay – b) / (by – a) = f (y) ∴ x = f (y)Read more on Sarthaks.com - https://www.sarthaks.com/651279/if-y-f-x-ax-b-bx-a-show-that-x-f-y

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