Math, asked by arundathybabu, 1 year ago

In a family of two children find the probability of having atleast one girl.


shadowsabers03: 1/3
shadowsabers03: Sorry, 2/3

Answers

Answered by shiva482
6

3/4 because

let

girl=G

boy=B

total out comes=GG;BB;BG;GB

at least one girl are 3

so probability is 3/4


anyonecancopyme: Behan-ki -ch+uttar
arundathybabu: I have a doubt. BG and GB could be same right?
anyonecancopyme: Ohhh
shiva482: u must have solved question on head n tail it's same
arundathybabu: All right
shadowsabers03: Yes. It's wrong to take BG and GB different because both are same. Even they're taken as different, both contain only 1 B and 1 G!
Answered by shadowsabers03
2

Actually there are a total of three possibilities.

  1. Two girls.
  2. Two boys.
  3. One boy and one girl.

Please don't take 'one girl and one boy' as the fourth possibility because it's combination occurs here, not permutation.

Means, one boy and one girl are like being selected to the family, not being arranged.

So it is wrong to take them as two different possibilities, because both are same and they contain only one girl and one boy even they're taken as different.

Okay, here, there are two possibilities in which atleast one girl is had.

So the probability is '2/3'.

Hope this may be helpful.

Please ask me if any doubts.

Thank you.

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