Physics, asked by confusedritik8588, 1 year ago

Integrals of the form $\int\frac{d^Dk}{(2\pi)^D} \frac{1}{k^{2n}}$ in $D=4-2\varepsilon$ dimensions?

Answers

Answered by Sushank2003
1
In a massless theory we often get integrals of the form

∫dDk(2π)D1k2n(*)(*)∫dDk(2π)D1k2n

where D=4−2εD=4−2ε. I have tried to calculate this in two ways in Minkowski space and in Euclidean space. With the former I would be integrating

∫dDk(2π)D1(k2+iε′)n∫dDk(2π)D1(k2+iε′)n

but in this case I appear to get a factor of 1/(ε′)ϵ1/(ε′)ϵin my final answer (for the case of n=2n=2) in which I can't take ε′→0ε′→0. In the Euclidean case I get an intergral of the form:

∫∞0tε/2−1∫0∞tε/2−1

which as far as I can tell diverges for ε>0ε>0 (which it is). Thus my question is as follows: What is the standard and easiest way to calculate (*) ideally based only on Feynman parametrization, Schwinger parametrization and guassian integrals
Answered by Anonymous
4

See Collins "Renormalization" for a discussion of dimensional regularization, including this particular integral.
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