English, asked by 1xyoyo1x, 9 months ago

integration of infinity to zero e^-st.b dt ... guys please give answer​

Answers

Answered by shreyashkadam217
0

Answer:

This is Laplace transform example.

We know that, cos(t)=(e^(it)+e^(-it))/2

Write this in above equation and you can easily observe that it looks similar to Laplace transform of t^3 only in which ‘s’ will be modified to (s-i) and (s+i) in two terms. All you need to do then is just simplifications.

Explanation:

Hope it helps☺

Answered by viddanchauhan
0

Answer:

FX(d)

Explanation:

7&""+''34£yeaxnitsefc

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