integration of
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It does not have anti-derivative. I am solving by taking tan(x/2).
Please see the attachment, and ask your doubt :)
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Anonymous:
2 integration{1/2 sin t cos t (ln(Tan t)} dt
which can be written as
integration of ( sec^2 x)/( tan x ln(tan x))
now again substitute y= ln( tan x)
dt=tan x/ sec^2 x dy
which means
integration of (1/y) dy
which is equal to ln(y)
IN the pic, i forgot to write 2 before integration(4th step) Kindly add while solving...
final editing done , image updated
Answered by
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I think this is correct
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great
men
this is tan x
i want tan x/2
answer is wrong
orrect one is
log (log tan x/2)
yes!
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