Math, asked by anshuman7515, 4 months ago

Is 16:28 and 24:42 a proportion

Answers

Answered by singhalvarun2004

1

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Eq 1 Dividing by 4

16/28= 4/7

and

Eq 2 Dividing by 6

24/42=4/7

Answered by Itzishi

2

Step-by-step explanation:

it is solved in the above figure

Attachments:

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

English, 2 months ago

Write an essay on Raksha Bandhan...

Hindi, 2 months ago

What is A Circumference Good morning to everyone Happy kookie day to all my friends And from today my school is gonna reopen right now I'm writing notes and I hope And All of MY ARMY ⟬⟭will celebrate this day very Well only my friends will answer...

English, 2 months ago

b) She remained in her ball dress all night. (name the parts of speech to which the underlined word belongs)...

English, 4 months ago

make sentence of cheiftain...

Business Studies, 4 months ago

21. A without B's authority let outs flat to C. Afterwards; B accepts rent of the flat from C. It is an agency by (A) Holding out (B) Estoppel (C) Ratification (D) Necessity...

Science, 11 months ago

How does sars covid 19 attack human being????? Please answer it fast It's urgent Please write correct answer I will make you brainlist...

Geography, 11 months ago

how many states of India have low levels of education during 1947/48...

Physics, 11 months ago

Four point charges 1 µC, -2 µC, 3 µC and -2 µC are placed at the four vertices of a square of side 1 cm The dipole moment of this charge assembly is...