Math, asked by marngarjulius, 4 months ago

is one-one and on
-
х
where R is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the doma
1
1. Show that the function f: R. → R defined by f(x) =
R is replaced by N with co-domain being same as R ?​

Answers

Answered by rithanyagovindasamy1
2

Answer:

Hence function is one - one but not onto.

Hope this helps you.

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