Question

Let A = {–1, 0, 1, 2}, B = {–4, –2, 0, 2} and f, g: A → B be functions defined by f (x) = x²-x, x ∈ A and ,$g(x)=2\begin{Vmatrix}x-\frac{1}{2} \end{Vmatrix}-1$ x ∈ A. Are f and g equal?
Justify your answer. (Hint: One may note that two functions f: A → B and g: A → B such that f (a) = g(a) ∀ a ∈ A, are called equal functions).

Answer 1

please don't delete the answer it's right