Math, asked by BrainlyHelper, 1 year ago

Let A and B be sets. Show that f: A × B → B × A such that (a, b) = (b, a) is bijective function.

Answers

Answered by abhi178
8
It is given that f : A × B → B × A is defined as f
(a, b) = (b, a)
Now let us consider (a_1,b_1),(a_2,b_2) ∈ A × B
Such that f(a_1,b_1)=f(a_2,b_2)
⇒ (b₁, a₁) = (b₂, a₂)
⇒ b₁ = b₂ and a₁ = a₂
⇒ (a₁, b₁) = (a₂, b₂)
⇒ f is one-one.
Now, let (b, a) ∈ B × A be any element.
Then, there exists (a, b) ∈ A × B such that f(a, b) = (b, a)
⇒ f is onto.
\textbf{Therefore, f is bijective.}
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