Math, asked by rohityesonly, 5 hours ago

let A=R-{b} and B=R-{1} then show that f:A—B such that f(x)=x-a/x-b is a bijection , where a≠b

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Answered by AyUsH1817336403

0

Answer:

I DON'T KNOW .

Step-by-step explanation:

HOPE IT'S HELPS YOU.

MARK AS BRAINLIEST .

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