Question

lf p(x) is exactly divisible by(x-a) then p(a) is equal to​

Answer 1

Answer:

If p(x) = is exactly divisible by (x - a), then p(a) = 0

This can be explained using an example:

If

$p(x) = {x}^{2} - 2x + 1$

and (x-1) is a root to this equation, then,

$x-1=0$

$x=1$

Applying this to p(x), we get:

$p(1) = {(1)}^{2} - 2(1) + 1$

$p(1) = 1 - 2 + 1$

$p(1) = 0$

Hence, proved.

Hope this helps.

Thanks.