Biology, asked by ashishnayk, 10 months ago

Metaphase 1 is different from metaphase Il as in
former
(1) Bivalents align at equator
(2) Each chromosome is attached to the spindle
fibres from both the poles
(3) Single equatorial plate is formed
(4) Each chromosome has single chromatid​

Answers

Answered by hmmmm16
0

Explanation:

answer is option (2)

as there is a bivalent in metaphase 1 so each chromosome is attached to the spindle fibres from both the poles

Answered by brokendreams
0

Metaphase I is different from metaphase II as in former, Each chromosome is attached to the spindle.

Option 2                                                        

Explanation:

  • In metaphase I, a bivalent gets formed as the "tetrads align on the metaphase plate".
  • Whereas in metaphase II, which is a part of second stage of Meiosis II, there are two daughter cells produced at the end of first meiotic division and the chrosomes again align to the metaphase plate with the help of spindle formation.
  • But this time a single equitorial plate gets formed unlike metaphase I.
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