Math, asked by arjun118, 1 year ago

multiplicative inverse of 0 upon 1 is equal to

Answers

Answered by jyotigroverpad13f

3

the ans is -1 for me
hope it will

Answered by niku9137

2

i thik that answer is 0

niku9137: welcome

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Math, 6 months ago

explain the use of concept of probability in Science as well as day to day life?

Physics, 6 months ago

please tell anyone.......

Social Sciences, 6 months ago

state the qualification required for being appointed as a judge of supreme Court...

Science, 1 year ago

information about desert soil in hindi...

English, 1 year ago

it is easier to plant trees than to conserve them. (turn into positive degree)...

Math, 1 year ago

Let p, q, r be three positive numbers such that p > q > r. when the smallest number is added to the difference of the rest two numbers, then the average of the resultant number and the original numbers except the smallest number is 21 more than the average of all the three original numbers. what would be the value of p - q?

Math, 1 year ago

In questions 49 to 86, state whether the statements are true (t) or false (f). 49. the square of 86 will have 6 at the units place. 50. the sum of two perfect squares is a perfect square. 51. the product of two perfect squares is a perfect square. 52. there is no square number between 50 and 60...

Math, 1 year ago

In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘justice' be arranged so that vowels always come together...