English, asked by komal626558, 8 months ago

please answer fast and step by step

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Answered by Anonymous

2

Heya Friend! The Answer of this

Question will be done in 2 lines..

Explanation:

Since Angle 1 = Angle 2 =38°

We know that Corresponding angles are equal in parallel lines..

Hence, p ||m...

Hope it helps.....

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