Math, asked by raashiverma2005, 9 months ago

Please answer this step by step.

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Answered by saounksh
2

Step-by-step explanation:

LHS =

 \frac{ {(1 +  \sin(x)) }^{2} +{( 1  -  \sin(x)) }^{2} }{2 \cos {}^{2} (x) }

we \: have \:

 {(a + b)}^{2}  + {(a  -  b)}^{2} =2({a}^{2} +  {b}^{2} )

Using this,the expression becomes

 \frac{2( {1}^{2}  +  \sin {}^{2} (x) )}{2 \cos {}^{2} (x) }

 =  \frac{1 +  \sin {}^{2} (x) }{ \cos {}^{2} (x) }

We know that

  \sin {}^{2} (x)  +  \cos {}^{2} (x)  = 1

or \:  \cos {}^{2} (x)  = 1 -  \sin {}^{2} (x)

Using this, the expression becomes

 \frac{1 +  \sin {}^{2} (x) }{1 -  \sin {}^{2} (x) }

= RHS

Hence proved

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