Physics, asked by sinhaadhita1234, 10 months ago

Please give me explanation of the question 5 shared below

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Answered by davisshikhar
0

We know that Coloumb's Force is given as

F_{columbs}=k\frac{|q_{1}|\:\:|q{2}|}{r^{2}}

Here Force is in Newton (N)

r is in metre (m)

q is in coloumbs (C)

Then k is equal to .

k=\frac {F×r^{2}}{q^{2}}

k=\frac{N×m^{2}}{C^{2}}

Hence unit of k

 k\:or\: \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon _{o}}=Nm^{2}C^{-2}

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