Math, asked by saitejaswinee38, 4 days ago

please solve the problem​

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Answered by krishika2086
0

Answer:

here is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

To show:

 {(a}^{x)y - z} \times  {(a}^{y)z - x}  \times  {(a}^{z)x - y} = 1

Proof:

 {a}^{xy - xz}  \times  {a}^{yz - xy} \times  {a}^{zx - zy}

since,

 {(a}^{ {m)}^{n} }  = {a}^{mn}

We also know that,

 {a}^{m}  \times  {a}^{n}  =  {a}^{m + n}

 {a}^{xy - xz  + yz - xy + zx - zy} =  {a}^{0}

since, any number raised to the power zero is equal to 1

 {a}^{0}  = 1

Therefore,

{(a}^{x)y - z} \times  {(a}^{y)z - x}  \times  {(a}^{z)x - y} = 1

hence proved

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