Math, asked by talmalepratik49, 8 months ago

pls........ans......fast ......yr........pls......

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Answers

Answered by sasiy999
1

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is attached at top

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Answered by chinmoydutta2002
1

Answer:

a=3, b=1

Step-by-step explanation:

For it to have infinitely many solutions:

\frac{1}{a-b}=\frac{2}{a+b}=\frac{1}{a=b-2}\\\\Using\:first\:two:\\\: \frac{1}{a-b} =\frac{2}{a+b}\\3b=a\\Using\; the \;value\;in\;relations\;2\;and\;3:\\\frac{2}{3b+b}=\frac{1}{3b+b-2}\\\\\frac{2}{4b}=\frac{1}{4b-2}\\4b=8b-4\\b=1\\

Now we get a=3 and b=1

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