Question

pls iss baar step by step

Answer 1

lhs equal to rhs

hence proved

Answer 2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(A-B) ^2 =A^2 - 2AB+B^2

SAME WAY..

(COS - 1)^2

=COS^2 - 2.COS.1+(1)^2

=COS^2 - 2COS +1

IF THIS IS WRITTEN

=COS^2 - 2COS +1

THEN WHY CANT WE WRITE

(COS - 1)^2

INSTEAD OF COS^2 - 2COS +1

Hope u understood this time