Physics, asked by rekha20011978, 7 months ago

pls solve these two question as soon as possible..
step by step explanation should be there..
pls don't spam.. it's a request​

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Answered by llɱissMaɠiciaŋll
1

Explanation:

(A) For  \: a  \: body  \: moving \:  in  \: a  \: circular  \: path \:  at  \: constant \:  speed, \:  the  \: centeripetal  \: force \:  is  \: always  \: present  \: on  \: the \:  body  \: acting  \: towards \:  the  \: center. \: </p><p>Direction  \: of  \: the \:  velocity  \: vector  \: of \:  a  \: body,  \: moving \:  in  \: a  \: circular  \: path,  \: always  \: keeps  \: on  \: changing  \: or  \: the  \: position \:  vector  \: of  \: the  \: particle  \: keeps  \: on  \: changing.</p><p></p><p>

(B) 18km/min \:  to  \: m/s \: </p><p>first \:  change  \: distance \:  in  \: km  \: to  \: m  \: by  \: multiplying  \: it  \: by  \: 1000 \:  then  \: change  \: minutes  \: into  \: seconds \:  by \:  multiplying \:  with \:  60.</p><p></p><p>18×1000m/1×60s=300m/s

Answered by peramrenuka
0

Explanation:

A,. when a body moves in a circular path the direction of speed is not the same at any two points and when there is a chance in the direction of speed of the body it's velocity is not in uniform there fore,circular motion is accelarative even though the speed of the body remains constant

B,. 18×1000 m/1×60s=300m/ s

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