Question

plz ans fast from chap logarithmn​

Answer 1

Answer:

Clearly, we know that

log a base b = 1/ log b base a

Using this property of logarithm we say that

LHS = 1/log 42 base 2 + 1/log 42 base 3 + 1/ log 42 base 7

= log 2 base 42 + log 3 base 42 + log 7 base 42

Now, using addition property of logarithm that the arguments of individual logarithm multiply to give the logarithm to the same base.

that is

log A + log B = log AB to the same base (also provided that the bases of the logarithm are both same)

So,

log 2 base 42 + log 3 base 42 + log 7 base 42 = log ((2)(3)(7)) base 42 = log 42 base 42 = 1 = RHS

Since ,log A base A = 1

Hence, proved.

Answer 2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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