plz answer this fast
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Yes this is true by the property of multiplicative inverse
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True
Step-by-step explanation:
Let a/b = 0/5
It's multiplicative inverse if 5/0...which is not defined...
Consider another example...
a/b = 2/3.. It's inverse is 3/2..which is well defined... That's the reason why...
Hope this helps...
Bhuvan..
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