Math, asked by harshini48, 11 months ago

plzz help me by solving this question

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Answered by A1111

2

Answer:

4) infinitely many.

Explanation:

I've proved that the value of given determinant is always 0 irrespective of (r, k). So, there can be infinitely many ordered pairs of (r, k).

Hope, it'll help you.....

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