Math, asked by tanishkini, 11 months ago

Plzz refer the image for given and to prove

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Answered by shadowsabers03
1

Since \sf{OC} is a radius of the circle and \sf{CP} is a tangent to the circle,

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\sf{\angle OCP=90^{\circ}}

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And we see that,

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\sf{OP=OA+AP}

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Since \sf{OA=AP,}

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\sf{OP=2OA}

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But since \sf{OA} and \sf{OC} are radii of the same circle,

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\sf{OP=2OC}\\\\\\\sf{\dfrac {OC}{OP}=\dfrac {1}{2}}

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Then, in \sf{\triangle OCP,}

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\sf{\cos\angle POC=\dfrac {OC}{OP}}\\\\\\\sf{\cos\angle POC=\dfrac {1}{2}}

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This implies,

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\sf{\angle POC=60^{\circ}}

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since \sf{\angle POC} is acute.

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The quadrilateral \sf{AOCE} is cyclic because \sf{AE} and \sf{CE} are tangents to the circle. Then,

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\sf{\angle CED=\angle AOC=60^{\circ}}

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And in \sf{\triangle BOC,\ OB=OC.}

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\sf{\therefore\ \angle OBC=\angle OCB=\dfrac {\angle AOC}{2}=30^{\circ}}

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because we know that sum of two interior angles of a triangle is equal to the third exterior angle.

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Then,

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\sf{\angle ECD=180^{\circ}-(\angle OCB+\angle OCP)}\\\\\\\sf{\angle ECD=60^{\circ}}

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That is,

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\sf{\angle ECD=\angle CED=60^{\circ}}

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This implies \sf{\triangle CDE} is nothing but an equilateral triangle.

\quad

Hence Proved!

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