Question

proof pie is irritational​

Answer 1

Answer:

Because Pie Cannot Be Expressed As A Fraction

Answer 2

Answer: there would be a number y ≠ 0 and integers a and b such that fk(x) = ay and fk + 1(x) = by. In order to see why, take y = fk + 1(x), a = 0 and b = 1 if fk(x) = 0; otherwise, choose integers a and b such that fk + 1(x)/fk(x) = b/a and define y = fk(x)/a = fk + 1(x)/b. In each case, y cannot be 0, because otherwise it would follow from claim 1 that each fk + n(x) (n ∈ N) would be 0, which would contradict claim 2. Now, take a natural number c such that all three numbers bc/k, ck/x2 and c/x2 are integers and consider the sequence

Step-by-step explanation: