Prove √2 is irrational
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Step-by-step explanation:
If possible, let √2 =p/q, where p€ Z , q ≠ 0 and p and q have no common factor.
(√2)² = (p)²/(q)². {Squaring both sides)
Therefore 2 = p²/q²
=> p²= 2q² (eqn - 1)
=>2 is a factor of p².
Therefore p² is divisible by 2
=> p is also divisible by 2.
Let p = 2m , where m € Z.
Therefore, p² = 4 m² (eqn - 2)
=> [Putting (eqn - 2) into (eqn-1)]
=> 4m² =2q²
=> 4m²/2 = q²
=> 2m² = q²
=> 2 is a factor of q²
Let q = 2n, where n€Z.
Therefore, √2 = p/q
=> √2 = 2n/2n, which shows that p and q has 2 as common factor
This contradicts our assumption that p and q have no common factor.
Hope It Helps You!
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