Math, asked by vinayakbala32, 1 year ago

PROVE TAYLORS THEOREM .
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Answers

Answered by mohmmedsufiyanali19
1

hey mate your answer is here

When n = 0, Taylor's theorem reduces to the Mean Value Theorem which is itself a consequence of Rolle's theorem. A similar approach can be used to prove Taylor's theorem. Suppose that f has a stationary point at a and that f (a) = = f(n−1)(a) = 0, while f(n)(a) = 0.

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vinayakbala32: im leaning it by myself
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vinayakbala32: first can we be friends
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Answered by mannatmarya
0

When n = 0, Taylor's theorem reduces to the Mean Value Theorem which is itself a consequence of Rolle's theorem. A similar approach can be used to prove Taylor's theorem. Suppose that f has a stationary point at a and that f (a) = = f(n−1)(a) = 0, while f(n)(a) = 0.

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