Math, asked by ShashankPrince123, 1 year ago

Prove that 2=0÷0 only for brilliances


shadowsabers03: No need to report this question. This is a nice question, and I know the answer!
shadowsabers03: I have answered a similar question yesterday too!

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1
hey buddy,,,,

⏩⏩⏩. To prove= 2= 0÷0

0÷0 = 100-100÷ 100-100

= 10^2- 10^2÷ 10(10-10)

= (10+10)(10-10)÷ 10(10-10)

= 10+10÷ 10

= 20÷10

= 2...


⏺⏺⏺hope it helps⏺⏺
Answered by shadowsabers03
0

Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:

We\ know\ that\ a\ number,\ which\ is\ subtracted\ from\ that\ number \\ itself,\ gives\ 0. \\ \\ We\ can\ write\ 0 = x - x. \\ \\ For\ my\ answer,\ I'm\ taking\ it\ as\ 0 = x^2 - x^2. \\ \\ \\ Okay,\ let's\ do\ it! \\ \\ \\


\\ \\ \\ \frac{0}{0} = \frac{x^2 - x^2}{x^2 - x^2} \\ \\ \frac{0}{0} = \frac{(x + x)(x - x)}{x(x - x)} \\ \\ \frac{0}{0} = \frac{x + x}{x} \\ \\ \frac{0}{0} = \frac{2x}{x} \\ \\ \frac{0}{0} = \frac{2}{1} \\ \\ \frac{0}{0} = 2 \\ \\ \\


\\ \\ \\ Though\ this\ was\ much\ trickier,\ a\ LARGE\ mistake\ is\ here. \\ \\ \\ Have\ a\ look\ at\ the\ intro! \\ \\ \frac{0}{0} = \frac{x^2 - x^2}{x^2 - x^2} \\ \\ Is\ here\ any\ mistake?! \\ \\ Can\ a\ number\ be\ divided\ by\ 0\ ?! \\ \\ We\ know\ that\ a\ number,\ when\ divided\ by\ that\ number\ itself, \\ results\ in\ 1. \\ \\ In\ accordance\ with\ this,\ will\ \frac{0}{0}\ be\ equal\ to\ 1\ ???!!!

Similar questions