Question

prove that limi h tends to 0 sin h/h=1​

Answer 1

Answer:

Let f(x) = sinx. ... We will show that limh→0 sinh h = 1 and limh→0 1 − cosh h = 0, from which it will follow that f (x) = (sinx) · 0 + (cosx) · 1 = cosx. We thus have the formula d dx (sinx) = cosx subject to proving the claims about the limits of sinh h and 1 − cosh h .