Question

prove that n^3-n is divisible by 6 by euclid's division Lemma

Answer 1

HEYA!!!! 

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HERE IS YOUR ANSWER......

SINCE, 

n3 - n = n (n2 - 1) = n (n - 1) (n + 1) 

NOW,

Whenever a number is divided by 3, the remainder obtained is either 0 or 1 or 2.

∴ n = 3p or 3p + 1 or 3p + 2, where p is some integer.

=> If = 3p, then n is divisible by 3.

=> If n = 3p + 1, then n – 1 = 3p + 1 –1 = 3p is divisible by 3.

=> If n = 3p + 2, then n + 1 = 3p + 2 + 1 = 3p + 3 = 3(p + 1) is divisible by 3.

THUS,

So, we can say that one of the numbers among n, n – 1 and n + 1 is always divisible by 3.

=> n (n – 1) (n + 1) is divisible by 3.
 
SIMILARLY,

Whenever a number is divided 2, the remainder obtained is 0 or 1.

THUS,

∴ n = 2q or 2q + 1, where q is some integer.
=> If n = 2q, then n is divisible by 2.
=> If n = 2q + 1, then n – 1 = 2q + 1 – 1 = 2q is divisible by 2 and n + 1 = 2q + 1 + 1 = 2q + 2 = 2 (q + 1) is divisible by 2.

So, we can say that one of the numbers among n, n – 1 and n + 1 is always divisible by 2.
⇒ n (n – 1) (n + 1) is divisible by 2.

SINCE,

=> n(n – 1) (n + 1) is divisible by 2 and 3.

∴ n (n-1) (n+1) = n3 - n is divisible by 6.( If a number is divisible by both 2 and 3 , then it is divisible by 6) 

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HOPE IT HELPS YOU,

THANK YOU.

Answer 2

Step-by-step explanation:

n³ - n = n (n² - 1) = n (n - 1) (n + 1)

Whenever a number is divided by 3, the remainder obtained is either 0 or 1 or 2.

∴ n = 3p or 3p + 1 or 3p + 2, where p is some integer.

If n = 3p, then n is divisible by 3.

If n = 3p + 1, then n – 1 = 3p + 1 –1 = 3p is divisible by 3.

If n = 3p + 2, then n + 1 = 3p + 2 + 1 = 3p + 3 = 3(p + 1) is divisible by 3.

So, we can say that one of the numbers among n, n – 1 and n + 1 is always divisible by 3.

⇒ n (n – 1) (n + 1) is divisible by 3.

Similarly, whenever a number is divided 2, the remainder obtained is 0 or 1.

∴ n = 2q or 2q + 1, where q is some integer.

If n = 2q, then n is divisible by 2.

If n = 2q + 1, then n – 1 = 2q + 1 – 1 = 2q is divisible by 2 and n + 1 = 2q + 1 + 1 = 2q + 2 = 2 (q + 1) is divisible by 2.

So, we can say that one of the numbers among n, n – 1 and n + 1 is always divisible by 2.

⇒ n (n – 1) (n + 1) is divisible by 2.

Since, n (n – 1) (n + 1) is divisible by 2 and 3.

∴ n (n-1) (n+1) = n³ - n is divisible by 6.( If a number is divisible by both 2 and 3 , then it is divisible by 6)

THANKS

#BeBrainly.