CBSE BOARD XII, asked by lion12, 1 year ago

prove that nc0 =1 in binomial theorem

Answers

Answered by ganeshnasrikripdvjr9
54

We know that nCr=n!/[(n-r)!r!]
here n=n and r=0
Therefore nC0=n!/[(n-0)!0!
=>nC0=n!/n!0!
=>nC0=1/0!=1/1=1....(since 0!=1)
Hence nC0=1
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Answered by mariospartan
11

Solution:

To prove the above equation we use the binomial theorem formula of  

C_{r}^{n}=\frac{n !}{(n-r) ! r !}

We put the value of n = n and the value of r = 0. thereby getting the value as  

C_{r}^{n}=\frac{n !}{(n-0) ! 0 !}

Now as we can see that the values have changed we get the value of  

So, now we can see that both the denominator and the numerator possess the same value which after deduction will change to 1.

Therefore, it proves that C_{0}^{n}=1

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