Question

prove that sin2 π\6+cos 2π\3-tan2 π/4 =-1/2
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Answer 1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

$\tt\: sin^{2}\bigg(\frac{\pi}{6}\bigg)+cos^{2}\bigg(\frac{\pi}{3}\bigg)-tan^{2}\bigg(\frac{\pi}{4}\bigg)$

$\tt\:= \bigg(\frac{1}{2}\bigg)^2+\bigg(\frac{1}{2}\bigg)^2-1$

$\tt\:= \frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-1$

$\tt\:= \frac{1}{2}-1$

$\tt\:=- \frac{1}{2}$