Math, asked by ravindhar61, 10 months ago

prove that tan squared theta by tan squared theta minus 1 + cosec square theta by sec square theta minus cosec square theta is equals to 1 by sin square theta minus cos square theta ​

Answers

Answered by mysticd
86

Answer:

\red {\frac{tan^{2}\theta}{tan^{2}\theta-1} + \frac{cosec^{2}\theta}{sec^{2}\theta-cosec^{2}\theta}}

 \green {= \frac{1}{sin^{2}\theta - cos^{2}\theta}}

Step-by-step explanation:

LHS =\frac{tan^{2}\theta}{tan^{2}\theta-1} + \frac{cosec^{2}\theta}{sec^{2}\theta-cosec^{2}\theta}

= \frac{\frac{sin^{2}\theta}{cos^{2}\theta}}{\frac{sin^{2}\theta}{cos^{2}\theta}-1} + \frac{\frac{1}{sin^{2}\theta}}{\frac{1}{cos^{2}\theta} - \frac{1}{sin^{2}\theta}}

= \frac{\frac{sin^{2}\theta}{cos^{2}\theta}}{\frac{sin^{2}\theta-cos^{2}\theta}{sin^{2}\theta cos^{2}\theta}} + \frac{\frac{1}{sin^{2}\theta}}{\frac{sin^{2}\theta-cos^{2}\theta}{sin^{2}\theta cos^{2}\theta }}

= \frac{ sin^{2}\theta cos^{2}\theta}{cos^{2}\theta(sin^{2}\theta - cos^{2}\theta)} + \frac{ sin^{2}\theta cos^{2}\theta}{sin^{2}\theta(sin^{2}\theta-cos^{2}\theta}

= \frac{ sin^{2}\theta}{sin^{2}\theta-cos^{2}\theta} +  \frac{ cos^{2}\theta}{sin^{2}\theta-cos^{2}\theta}

 = \frac{ sin^{2}\theta + cos^{2}\theta}{sin^{2}\theta - cos^{2}\theta}

 = \frac{1}{sin^{2}\theta - cos^{2}\theta} \\= RHS

Therefore.,

\red {\frac{tan^{2}\theta}{tan^{2}\theta-1} + \frac{cosec^{2}\theta}{sec^{2}\theta-cosec^{2}\theta}}

 \green {= \frac{1}{sin^{2}\theta - cos^{2}\theta}}

•••♪

Answered by kasrohini0123
18

Step-by-step explanation:

arrow marks indicates how the multiplication done

Attachments:
Similar questions