prove that x square log(1/x)
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Intuition behind logarithm inequality: 1−1x≤logx≤x−1 (4 answers)
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I want to show that
x1+x<log(1+x)<x
for all x>0 using the mean value theorem. I tried to prove the two inequalities separately.
x1+x<log(1+x)⇔x1+x−log(1+x)<0
Let
f(x)=x1+x−log(1+x).
Since
f(0)=0
and
f′(x)=1(1+x)2−11+x<0
for all x>0, f(x)<0 for all x>0. Is this correct so far?
I go on with the second part: Let f(x)=log(x+1). Choose a=0 and x>0 so that there is, according to the mean value theorem, an x0 between a and x with
f′(x0)=f(x)−f(a)x−a⇔1x0+1=log(x+1)x.
Since
x0>0⇒1x0+1<1.
⇒1>1x0+1=log(x+1)x⇒x>log(x+1)
calculus real-analysis inequality logarithms
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edited Jun 17 '14 at 16:34
Martin Sleziak
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asked Jan 26 '14 at 23:28
fear.xD
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How did you arrive at that first equivalence, x1+x<log(1+x)⟺−log(1+x)x1+x<0? Also, you've calculated f′(x) incorrectly. – Amit Kumar Gupta Jan 26 '14 at 23:36
By subtracting it. Wolfram Alpha says, my derivation is correct... – fear.xD Jan 26 '14 at 23:40
Hint: If you subtract, there should be a plus sign to indicate addition. The way you have it now looks like they're being multiplied. – MCT Jan 26 '14 at 23:41
I've just copied it wrong, but used it correct in my derivation.. – fear.xD Jan 26 '14 at 23:43
I know; it was tongue in cheek. – MCT Jan 26 '14 at 23:44